Sunday, August 14, 2011

Why is the "No True Scotsman Fallacy" so often misunderstood and misapplied when the topic is religion?

I can't recall a clroom situation where one of my students ever misused the NTS fallacy. Yet, in R&S when someone points out that a standard definition has been applied improperly, simpletons whine "You've committed the NTS fallacy." Is the meaning of the NTS fallacy really that difficult to understand? Or do people in R&S simply consider it a wild card argument that can be applied when logic fails them?

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